NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam Extensive Learning - E-dapt Content

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Contributor

Matthew Perry

Category

Nursing

Course

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology

Institute

Chamberlain

Pages

14

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One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in acute renal failure is: activation of the RAA system A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: hypotension Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure. True One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. True Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatinine gets freely filtered from the glomerulus Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for recovery from acute renal failure? Kidney responds to Lasix In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. True In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which leads to a dilute urine. True One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute renal failure is hypokalemia false, hyperkalemia needs to be managed Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increased water consumption A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: urgency Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of having a shorter urethra. True Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? Pregnancy Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract infection? Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the causative bacteria are gram negative because of the presence of: nitrites The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and casts. True A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include: staphylococcus saprophyticus The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI because: the UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: the prostatic urethra becomes obstructed There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) to develop cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer. False The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.true The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction encountered during urination. True On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would be concerned with which of the following findings? a hard nodule Irritative BPH- nocturia, urinary frequency, urgency that results from bladder hypertrophy and dysfunction. Obstructive BPH- Incomplete emptying, postvoid dribbling The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is: periurethral zone Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: stagnated urine in the bladder promotes bacterial growth The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation. True The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and multiply. True The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: shrinkage of the prostate gland Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. False The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. False, CT scan The most common type of stone is: calcium stone Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine. True The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is: struvite stone Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. false Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. True The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence within 10 years of the prior stone. True Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: the stone injured the urinary structures as it passes through them The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external sphincter. True The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating micturition is: pontine micturition center When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal and external sphincters constrict. True The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital diaphragm. False, its located in the bladder Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder? Activation of the beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system Stress incontinence- leaking of urine with activity Urge incontinence- leakage of urine with sensation of need to urinate Neurogenic incontinence- unimpeded urine leakage Overflow incontinence- leakage of urine is associated with urgency, frequency, dribbling and hesitancy Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as: functional incontinence The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: lesions alter nervous system impulses that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance and decreased sphincter tone Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary incontinence? Urinary tract infection A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out of the bladder would most likely result in: overflow incontinence The major cause of stress incontinence in women is hypermobility of the external sphincter. True Stage III kidney disease is signified when the GFR drops below 60. True Which of the following is a complication of decreased GFR? Anemia The result of vitamin D deficiency results in: hypocalcemia The number one cause of end-stage renal disease is diabetes mellitus and hypertension combined. True The anemia seen in renal failure is due to the lack or iron. False The decision to begin dialysis is guided by the patient’s symptoms rather than GFR. True The major acid/base disturbance in renal failure is: metabolic acidosis End-stage renal disease is signified by a GFR of: <15 Diuretic therapy is used in Stage IV kidney failures to stimulate kidney function. False Dietary management of a patient with CKD includes: low potassium, low sodium, low phosphate Which of the following symptoms are considered atypical for GERD? Chest pain Which of the following symptoms are typical GERD symptoms? Heartburn and regurgitation A 50-year-old is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease. This condition is caused by: loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter The bacteria that is associated with GERD is: H. pylori OBESITY is a risk factor for the development of GERD. The gold standard for the treatment of GERD is: PPI’s Which of the following is an “alarm” finding in a person with GERD symptoms? Iron- deficiency anemia The NP provides education to a patient with a new diagnosis of GERD. Which statement below would indicate that the patient needs further teaching? After I eat I will recline to help decrease the pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter A 37-year -old female complains of a 7-month history of intermittent heart burn that occurs after eating tomatoes. She denies any weight loss. On exam, the NP identifies epigastric tenderness. As first line therapy for this patient, the NP

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